B13. Approach Control Quiz

 

Results

Q1. In a successive visual approach, what instruction is given if the pilot reports the preceding aircraft in sight?

  • Points to Remember – ATC issues the instruction MAINTAIN OWN SEPARATION FROM PRECEDING aircraft type
  • – The pilot becomes responsible for keeping a safe distance once the preceding aircraft is in sight
  • – This procedure transitions separation responsibility from the controller to the pilot during a visual approach

Q2. What information must IFR departure pilots include on initial contact with the first en-route ATS unit?

  • Points to Remember – Identify yourself using your call sign
  • – State the specific departure route or SID you are following
  • – Report your current altitude or passing level
  • – Communicate your cleared initial climb level

Q3. What phraseology is used to clear an aircraft to proceed direct to a waypoint while keeping the expectation to rejoin the SID?

  • Points to Remember – Use the phrase CLEARED DIRECT [waypoint], EXPECT TO REJOIN SID
  • – This instruction directs the pilot to fly straight to a specific point
  • – It informs the pilot to prepare to return to the standard departure route later
  • – This acts as a shortcut before merging back onto the main departure path

Q4. In a detailed holding clearance, what information specifies the lateral limits of the holding pattern?

  • Points to Remember – The inbound track toward the fix defines the alignment
  • – The direction of turn (right or left) determines the side of the track used
  • – The length or distance of the outbound leg sets the pattern’s extent

Q5. A Standard Terminal Arrival Route STAR is described as comprising two main elements. What are they?

  • Points to Remember – A STAR consists of a Transition Route and an Arrival Route
  • – The Transition Route connects the en-route phase from the airway to the arrival procedure
  • – The Arrival Route leads from the transition into the approach phase
  • – It functions similarly to an exit ramp transitioning onto a local road

Q6. What element substitutes for Time of leg in the holding information order when issuing a VOR/DME holding clearance?

  • Points to Remember – Distance replaces time in a VOR/DME holding clearance
  • – ATC specifies an outbound DME distance instead of a time limit
  • – DME provides exact distance information for higher precision
  • – Using DME is more accurate than timing legs with a stopwatch

Q7. During a VDF procedure, requests for QDMs are normally initiated by the pilot at intervals of about 1 minute during the initial stages of homing, and what happens to the frequency as the VDF overhead is approached?

  • Points to Remember – Request frequency for QDMs increases as the station is approached
  • – Smaller heading errors become more critical when closer to the destination
  • – Frequent updates are necessary to maintain accuracy during the final stages of homing
  • – Initial requests are typically made at one-minute intervals when far from the station

Q8. If an SRA terminates at less than 2 miles from touchdown, at what intervals are the distance and advisory altitude checks given?

  • Points to Remember – SRA updates occur every half mile when the distance to touchdown is less than 2 miles
  • – Increased frequency provides more precise guidance as the aircraft gets closer to the ground
  • – Advisory altitude and distance checks become more frequent to ensure a safe landing profile

Q9. For an aircraft to be eligible to fly an RNAV GNSS Standard Instrument Departure SID, what must its navigation system meet?

  • Points to Remember – Navigation systems must be accurate to within 1 nautical mile (RNAV-1) for SID operations
  • – High precision is required for SIDs due to proximity to the airport and other air traffic
  • – RNAV-5 is intended for en-route navigation with 5 nautical mile accuracy
  • – RNAV-10 is used for oceanic navigation and does not provide sufficient precision for departures

Q10. The basic designator for ATS routes consists of one letter followed by a number from:

  • Points to Remember – ATS route designators consist of one letter followed by a number
  • – The numerical range used for these routes is 1 to 999
  • – The letter indicates the type of route while the number identifies the specific path

Q11. What phraseology is used to assign an arrival clearance limit?

  • Points to Remember – Use the phrase Cleared To followed by the destination name
  • – Add the word Airport immediately after the destination name if the limit is an airport
  • – Specify the type of fix if the limit is a Navaid, intersection, or waypoint
  • – Include the route of flight, such as a STAR or RNAV STAR, as part of the clearance instructions

Q12. Which Q-code stands for the Magnetic heading to be steered by the aircraft to reach the station?

  • Points to Remember – QDM represents the magnetic heading to be steered to reach a station
  • – It is commonly used for homing an aircraft toward a specific station
  • – You can remember it as Q Direction Magnetic (TO the station)

Q13. What is the phraseology when a delay is not expected for an arrival?

  • Points to Remember – Use the phrase NO DELAY EXPECTED
  • – Indicates that no holding is required before landing
  • – Signal from ATC that an immediate approach is available

Q14. Which instruction directs an aircraft to maintain the runway’s heading after departure?

  • Points to Remember – Maintain the same direction as the runway after takeoff
  • – Fly straight without turning
  • – Continue on the heading used during liftoff

Q15. What is the immediate and mandatory action for a pilot upon receiving a RAIM alert during an approach?

  • Points to Remember – A RAIM alert indicates the GPS cannot guarantee required navigation accuracy
  • – Pilots must immediately discontinue the approach
  • – Continued landing is prohibited when the exact position cannot be verified

Q16. What is the key phrase regarding safety checks at the start of an SRA service?

  • Points to Remember – CHECK YOUR MINIMA is the essential safety reminder beginning an SRA
  • – Pilots must know their minimum descent altitude as the lowest permissible level
  • – A go-around is required if the runway is not visible by that altitude
  • – This altitude serves as a critical safety floor during the approach

Q17. What is the phraseology for a visual hold?

  • Points to Remember – Visual holding involves following a pattern by looking outside without needing navigation instruments
  • – ATC phraseology for this is HOLD VISUAL [OVER] a specific position or BETWEEN two landmarks
  • – Pilots use visual references like lakes or highways to maintain the pattern
  • – The maneuver is similar to circling over a visible landmark

Q18. What is the purpose of the Initial climb level provided on initial contact for IFR departures?

  • Points to Remember – It is the first altitude where a pilot stops climbing and maintains level flight
  • – It acts as a temporary ceiling until further clearance is received from ATC
  • – Pilots must remain at this level unless specifically instructed otherwise by ATC

Q19. Clearance to execute a visual approach shall only be issued provided the aircraft can maintain visual reference to terrain and has:

  • Points to Remember – The pilot must be able to see the runway
  • – Maintaining visual reference to the terrain is a basic requirement
  • – Seeing the landing area is essential to execute a visual approach

Q20. What is the phraseology to request if a pilot is able to accept a visual approach?

  • Points to Remember – Standard phraseology is ADVISE ABLE TO ACCEPT VISUAL APPROACH RUNWAY [number]
  • – ATC uses this phrase to check if the pilot can see the runway
  • – The query confirms if the pilot is comfortable landing visually

Q21. During a Precision Radar Approach PAR, who is primarily responsible for tracking the aircraft’s deviation?

  • Points to Remember – The controller is primarily responsible for tracking the aircraft’s deviations from the correct path
  • – Radar is used by the controller to monitor if the pilot is above, below, left, or right of the glide path
  • – The pilot’s role is to follow the specific verbal instructions provided by the controller

Q22. What is the phraseology used by a pilot to ask for holding instructions?

  • Points to Remember – Use the standard phrase: REQUEST HOLDING INSTRUCTIONS
  • – Keep the communication professional and concise
  • – Ask Air Traffic Control (ATC) for specific details on where and how to hold

Q23. Which letter prefix is used to designate a Helicopter route?

  • Points to Remember – The letter prefix K is used to designate routes specifically for helicopters
  • – Helicopter routes are identified by this prefix on route designators
  • – You can remember K stands for Kopter to associate it with helicopters

Q24. What is the primary purpose of vectoring for approach?

  • Points to Remember – ATC provides specific headings to guide the aircraft onto the final approach path
  • – Vectors are used to help the pilot intercept approach aids like ILS or VOR
  • – The process serves as guidance to the starting line of the final approach to the runway

Q25. Which of the following is an Approach Control service?

  • Points to Remember – Precision Radar Approach (PAR) is a service where controllers guide pilots to the runway using precise radar
  • – Oceanic Control provides services for aircraft flying over ocean regions
  • – ATIS is an automated information broadcast service, not an approach service

Q26. What is the primary role of the Air Traffic Controller regarding known GNSS interference, as per the protocol?

  • Points to Remember – Inform pilots about the interference with as much detail as possible
  • – Provide information to allow pilots to make informed decisions
  • – Do not automatically cancel approaches or vector aircraft away

Q27. Which letter prefix is used to designate a Route in Upper airspace?

  • Points to Remember – The letter prefix U is used to designate routes in upper airspace
  • – Examples include route identifiers such as UA1 or UB534
  • – This prefix indicates the route is located above a specific flight level
  • – U stands for Upper, making it easy to identify and remember

Q28. When the SRA is terminated because the pilot reports runway in sight, what is the condition for termination?

  • Points to Remember – Terminate the SRA when there is reasonable assurance of a successful landing
  • – Ensure the pilot has the runway in sight
  • – Verify that conditions are favorable for landing
  • – Confirm a reasonable expectation of safety without requiring absolute certainty

Q29. At busier airports, how may departures and arrivals be handled?

  • Points to Remember – Busy airports manage high traffic volumes by splitting arrival and departure duties
  • – Workload is divided between multiple controllers to ensure safety and efficiency
  • – One controller focuses on departing aircraft while another manages landing traffic

Q30. What phraseology is used to clear an approach that is followed by a circling maneuver?

  • Points to Remember – Use the phrase Cleared type Runway number followed by circling to Runway number
  • – This clears an instrument approach to one runway and a circling maneuver to another
  • – The phraseology clearly outlines the full plan from approach to landing

Q31. In a PAR approach, what is the initial call given to an aircraft after the approach is approved?

  • Points to Remember – The first request from ATC after a PAR approach is approved is to report heading and altitude
  • – This information allows the controller to identify the aircraft’s exact position and orientation
  • – Accurate reporting is essential before the controller begins providing guidance for the approach

Q32. What phraseology is used to instruct a pilot to maintain altitude until a certain point of the approach?

  • Points to Remember – Use the phrase MAINTAIN altitude UNTIL GLIDE PATH INTERCEPTION
  • – Stay at the current altitude until the glide path is captured
  • – Follow the descending beam down to the runway after interception

Q33. In the SRA 3 deg Glide Path at 4 miles from touchdown, what is the advisory height?

  • Points to Remember – The advisory height at 4 miles from touchdown on a standard 3-degree glide path is 1250 feet
  • – Each mile on a 3-degree path equates to approximately 300 to 310 feet of descent
  • – Calculating the height (4 miles × ~310 feet) confirms the 1250-foot advisory level

Q34. What phraseology is used to issue a change to a previously given Expected Approach Time?

  • Points to Remember – Use the phrase REVISED EXPECTED APPROACH TIME to change a previously issued EAT
  • – The term REVISED indicates that the earlier time is no longer valid
  • – ATC must transmit a revised EAT if it differs from the previous one by 5 minutes or more

Q35. In the event of a GNSS failure, what specific information does the pilot provide to Air Traffic Control?

  • Points to Remember – Notify ATC of the specific failure alert received
  • – State the intended plan of action
  • – Report the current position and altitude
  • – Identify the procedure being followed at the time of failure

Q36. During an SRA that terminates at less than 2 miles from touchdown, and aircraft replies are not expected, how long is the maximum interval the controller’s transmissions should be interrupted once the aircraft is within 4 miles from touchdown?

  • Points to Remember – Maintain continuous controller transmissions during the critical landing phase
  • – Limit controller silence to no more than 5 seconds when within 4 miles of touchdown
  • – Ensure the pilot receives steady guidance when aircraft replies are not expected during an SRA

Q37. Which set of letters designates RNAV routes that are part of the regional network?

  • Points to Remember – Letters L, M, N, and P designate RNAV routes in the regional ATS network
  • – RNAV stands for Area Navigation
  • – These routes allow aircraft to fly direct paths using GPS and modern navigation systems

Q38. Which Q-code stands for the Magnetic bearing of the aircraft from the station?

  • Points to Remember – QDR represents the magnetic bearing from the station to the aircraft
  • – QDM represents the magnetic heading to the station
  • – Think of QDR as a radial shooting out from the station toward the aircraft position

Q39. To avoid confusion with ILS, an MLS approach is referred to as what in RTF communication?

  • Points to Remember – MLS is referred to as Microwave Approach in radio communications
  • – This specific terminology is used to prevent pilots from confusing MLS with ILS
  • – The distinct naming ensures clarity and avoids communication errors during approach

Q40. How should ATC clear a pilot to descend on a STAR and cancel all published level and speed restrictions?

  • Points to Remember – ATC cancels STAR altitude and speed restrictions by using the phrase DESCEND UNRESTRICTED TO (level)
  • – Alternatively, they may use DESCEND TO (level), CANCEL LEVEL AND SPEED RESTRICTIONS
  • – These instructions allow pilots to descend smoothly without adhering to individual step-down constraints or speed limits published on the arrival procedure

Q41. What must a pilot do immediately if the controller transmits, YOU HAVE CROSSED THE LOCALIZER?

  • Points to Remember – Turn immediately to get back on the localizer
  • – The localizer is the beam that guides the aircraft to the runway centerline
  • – Crossing the localizer means the aircraft is off course and needs immediate correction

Q42. Which Q-code stands for the True heading to be steered by the aircraft to reach the station?

  • Points to Remember – QUJ represents the true heading to be steered to reach the station
  • – It is the true bearing equivalent of QDM, which uses magnetic heading
  • – This code is specifically used for navigating toward a facility using true north as the reference

Q43. If an SRA procedure terminates at 2 miles from touchdown, at what intervals are the distance and advisory altitude checks normally passed?

  • Points to Remember – Distance and advisory altitude checks are normally passed at each half mile
  • – Frequent checks help pilots maintain precise awareness of position and altitude
  • – Half-mile intervals ensure safer landings compared to one-mile intervals

Q44. Which Q-code stands for the True bearing of the aircraft from the station?

  • Points to Remember – QTE represents the true bearing of the aircraft from the station
  • – It is similar to QDR but referenced to true north instead of magnetic north
  • – This code is primarily used for plotting accurate positions on charts

Q45. The services handled by Approach Control include:

  • Points to Remember – Approach Control manages both IFR (instrument) and VFR (visual) departures and arrivals
  • – These services are provided for traffic within the airport terminal area
  • – Surface movements on the ground are handled by Ground Control rather than Approach Control

Q46. When is the phrase DELAY NOT DETERMINED used?

  • Points to Remember – Used when ATC knows a delay will occur but the exact duration is unknown
  • – Followed by the specific reason for the delay
  • – Communicates that there is a wait without a specified time frame

Q47. During a Surveillance Radar Approach SRA, what does the controller provide to the pilot?

  • Points to Remember – Distance from touchdown is provided by the controller
  • – Advisory heights are suggested at specific distances
  • – Precise glide path guidance is not provided
  • – Suggested altitudes help ensure a safe descent
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