B13. Approach Control Quiz

Q1. At busier airports, how may departures and arrivals be handled?

By the Tower controller only.

By a single approach control unit.

Separately.

Points to Remember – Busy airports manage high traffic volumes by splitting arrival and departure duties
– Workload is divided between multiple controllers to ensure safety and efficiency
– One controller focuses on departing aircraft while another manages landing traffic

Q2. What is the phraseology used by a pilot to ask for holding instructions?

PERMISSION TO HOLD OVER navigation aid.

ADVISE HOLDING PROCEDURE.

REQUEST HOLDING INSTRUCTIONS.

Points to Remember – Use the standard phrase: REQUEST HOLDING INSTRUCTIONS
– Keep the communication professional and concise
– Ask Air Traffic Control (ATC) for specific details on where and how to hold

Q3. Which of the following is an Approach Control service?

Precision radar approach.

Automatic Terminal Information Service

Oceanic control.

Points to Remember – Precision Radar Approach (PAR) is a service where controllers guide pilots to the runway using precise radar
– Oceanic Control provides services for aircraft flying over ocean regions
– ATIS is an automated information broadcast service, not an approach service

Q4. During an SRA that terminates at less than 2 miles from touchdown, and aircraft replies are not expected, how long is the maximum interval the controller’s transmissions should be interrupted once the aircraft is within 4 miles from touchdown?

5 seconds.

3 seconds.

10 seconds.

Points to Remember – Maintain continuous controller transmissions during the critical landing phase
– Limit controller silence to no more than 5 seconds when within 4 miles of touchdown
– Ensure the pilot receives steady guidance when aircraft replies are not expected during an SRA

Q5. Which letter prefix is used to designate a Helicopter route?

U.

K.

S.

Points to Remember – The letter prefix K is used to designate routes specifically for helicopters
– Helicopter routes are identified by this prefix on route designators
– You can remember K stands for Kopter to associate it with helicopters

Q6. What phraseology is used to issue a change to a previously given Expected Approach Time?

EXPECTED APPROACH TIME CHANGED TO time.

UPDATED APPROACH TIME time.

REVISED EXPECTED APPROACH TIME time.

Points to Remember – Use the phrase REVISED EXPECTED APPROACH TIME to change a previously issued EAT
– The term REVISED indicates that the earlier time is no longer valid
– ATC must transmit a revised EAT if it differs from the previous one by 5 minutes or more

Q7. What phraseology is used to assign an arrival clearance limit?

CLEARED TO clearance limit designation.

CLEARED VIA SID/STAR.

CLEARED TO LAND runway number.

Points to Remember – Use the phrase Cleared To followed by the destination name
– Add the word Airport immediately after the destination name if the limit is an airport
– Specify the type of fix if the limit is a Navaid, intersection, or waypoint
– Include the route of flight, such as a STAR or RNAV STAR, as part of the clearance instructions

Q8. In the SRA 3 deg Glide Path at 4 miles from touchdown, what is the advisory height?

1250 feet.

1550 feet.

1400 feet.

Points to Remember – The advisory height at 4 miles from touchdown on a standard 3-degree glide path is 1250 feet
– Each mile on a 3-degree path equates to approximately 300 to 310 feet of descent
– Calculating the height (4 miles × ~310 feet) confirms the 1250-foot advisory level

Q9. What element substitutes for Time of leg in the holding information order when issuing a VOR/DME holding clearance?

Speed.

DME Fix.

Distance.

Points to Remember – Distance replaces time in a VOR/DME holding clearance
– ATC specifies an outbound DME distance instead of a time limit
– DME provides exact distance information for higher precision
– Using DME is more accurate than timing legs with a stopwatch

Q10. For an aircraft to be eligible to fly an RNAV GNSS Standard Instrument Departure SID, what must its navigation system meet?

RNAV-5 standard of accuracy or equivalent.

RNAV-10 standard of accuracy or equivalent.

RNAV-1 standard of accuracy or equivalent.

Points to Remember – Navigation systems must be accurate to within 1 nautical mile (RNAV-1) for SID operations
– High precision is required for SIDs due to proximity to the airport and other air traffic
– RNAV-5 is intended for en-route navigation with 5 nautical mile accuracy
– RNAV-10 is used for oceanic navigation and does not provide sufficient precision for departures

Q11. What is the phraseology for a visual hold?

HOLD OVER way point AT FLIGHT LEVEL. REMAIN IN VMC.

HOLD AS PUBLISHED OVER navigation aid AND LOOK OUT.

HOLD VISUAL [OVER] position, or BETWEEN two prominent landmarks.

Points to Remember – Visual holding involves following a pattern by looking outside without needing navigation instruments
– ATC phraseology for this is HOLD VISUAL [OVER] a specific position or BETWEEN two landmarks
– Pilots use visual references like lakes or highways to maintain the pattern
– The maneuver is similar to circling over a visible landmark

Q12. The basic designator for ATS routes consists of one letter followed by a number from:

1 to 999.

1 to 99.

1 to 9999.

Points to Remember – ATS route designators consist of one letter followed by a number
– The numerical range used for these routes is 1 to 999
– The letter indicates the type of route while the number identifies the specific path

Q13. The services handled by Approach Control include:

ADS B / C services.

Surface Movement Control.

IFR departures, VFR departures, IFR arrivals, VFR arrivals.

Points to Remember – Approach Control manages both IFR (instrument) and VFR (visual) departures and arrivals
– These services are provided for traffic within the airport terminal area
– Surface movements on the ground are handled by Ground Control rather than Approach Control

Q14. What is the purpose of the Initial climb level provided on initial contact for IFR departures?

The level available after departure not specified in SIDs and departure clearance.

The first level at which the aircraft will level off unless otherwise cleared.

The highest Flight Level available due to traffic.

Points to Remember – It is the first altitude where a pilot stops climbing and maintains level flight
– It acts as a temporary ceiling until further clearance is received from ATC
– Pilots must remain at this level unless specifically instructed otherwise by ATC

Q15. Which set of letters designates RNAV routes that are part of the regional network?

L, M, N, P.

H, J, V, W.

A, B, G, R.

Points to Remember – Letters L, M, N, and P designate RNAV routes in the regional ATS network
– RNAV stands for Area Navigation
– These routes allow aircraft to fly direct paths using GPS and modern navigation systems

Q16. Which letter prefix is used to designate a Route in Upper airspace?

S.

U.

K.

Points to Remember – The letter prefix U is used to designate routes in upper airspace
– Examples include route identifiers such as UA1 or UB534
– This prefix indicates the route is located above a specific flight level
– U stands for Upper, making it easy to identify and remember

Q17. In a successive visual approach, what instruction is given if the pilot reports the preceding aircraft in sight?

EXPECT WAKE TURBULENCE.

CO ORDINATE SEPARATION WITH PRECEDING Boeing 737.

MAINTAIN OWN SEPARATION FROM PRECEDING aircraft type.

Points to Remember – ATC issues the instruction MAINTAIN OWN SEPARATION FROM PRECEDING aircraft type
– The pilot becomes responsible for keeping a safe distance once the preceding aircraft is in sight
– This procedure transitions separation responsibility from the controller to the pilot during a visual approach

Q18. If an SRA terminates at less than 2 miles from touchdown, at what intervals are the distance and advisory altitude checks given?

Every quarter mile.

Each half mile.

At one mile intervals.

Points to Remember – SRA updates occur every half mile when the distance to touchdown is less than 2 miles
– Increased frequency provides more precise guidance as the aircraft gets closer to the ground
– Advisory altitude and distance checks become more frequent to ensure a safe landing profile

Q19. A Standard Terminal Arrival Route STAR is described as comprising two main elements. What are they?

An Initial Approach and a Final Approach.

A Transition Route and an Arrival Route.

A Departure Route and an Arrival Route.

Points to Remember – A STAR consists of a Transition Route and an Arrival Route
– The Transition Route connects the en-route phase from the airway to the arrival procedure
– The Arrival Route leads from the transition into the approach phase
– It functions similarly to an exit ramp transitioning onto a local road

Q20. What is the immediate and mandatory action for a pilot upon receiving a RAIM alert during an approach?

Immediately discontinue the approach.

Continue the approach while cross-checking with other navigation sources.

Inform Air Traffic Control and wait for instructions.

Points to Remember – A RAIM alert indicates the GPS cannot guarantee required navigation accuracy
– Pilots must immediately discontinue the approach
– Continued landing is prohibited when the exact position cannot be verified

Q21. When the SRA is terminated because the pilot reports runway in sight, what is the condition for termination?

The aircraft is committed to land.

There is reasonable assurance that a landing will be effected.

The pilot will adjust height and land if he is aligned with the runway center line.

Points to Remember – Terminate the SRA when there is reasonable assurance of a successful landing
– Ensure the pilot has the runway in sight
– Verify that conditions are favorable for landing
– Confirm a reasonable expectation of safety without requiring absolute certainty

Q22. What phraseology is used to clear an approach that is followed by a circling maneuver?

CLEARED type of approach RUNWAY number FOLLOWED BY CIRCLING TO RUNWAY number.

CLEARED CIRCLING APPROACH TO RUNWAY number.

CLEARED type of approach APPROACH RUNWAY number. FOLLOW BY VISUAL APPROACH RUNWAY number,

Points to Remember – Use the phrase Cleared type Runway number followed by circling to Runway number
– This clears an instrument approach to one runway and a circling maneuver to another
– The phraseology clearly outlines the full plan from approach to landing

Q23. What information must IFR departure pilots include on initial contact with the first en-route ATS unit?

Call sign, SID, Current/passing level, Initial climb level.

ETA at destination, fuel remaining.

Aircraft type and number of passengers.

Points to Remember – Identify yourself using your call sign
– State the specific departure route or SID you are following
– Report your current altitude or passing level
– Communicate your cleared initial climb level

Q24. Which Q-code stands for the True bearing of the aircraft from the station?

QDR.

QTE.

QDM.

Points to Remember – QTE represents the true bearing of the aircraft from the station
– It is similar to QDR but referenced to true north instead of magnetic north
– This code is primarily used for plotting accurate positions on charts

Q25. What is the key phrase regarding safety checks at the start of an SRA service?

CHECK YOUR SPEED.

CHECK YOUR MINIMA.

CHECK YOUR FLAPS.

Points to Remember – CHECK YOUR MINIMA is the essential safety reminder beginning an SRA
– Pilots must know their minimum descent altitude as the lowest permissible level
– A go-around is required if the runway is not visible by that altitude
– This altitude serves as a critical safety floor during the approach

Q26. Clearance to execute a visual approach shall only be issued provided the aircraft can maintain visual reference to terrain and has:

The preceding aircraft in sight.

The runway in sight.

ATC radar service available.

Points to Remember – The pilot must be able to see the runway
– Maintaining visual reference to the terrain is a basic requirement
– Seeing the landing area is essential to execute a visual approach

Q27. In a detailed holding clearance, what information specifies the lateral limits of the holding pattern?

Expected Approach Time / onward clearance time, type and speed of aircraft.

Inbound Track, Right/Left Hand Pattern, and Outbound Time/Distance.

Holding navigation aid and Flight Level.

Points to Remember – The inbound track toward the fix defines the alignment
– The direction of turn (right or left) determines the side of the track used
– The length or distance of the outbound leg sets the pattern’s extent

Q28. Which instruction directs an aircraft to maintain the runway’s heading after departure?

TRACK EXTENDED CENTER LINE.

CONTINUE RUNWAY HEADING.

MAINTAIN TAKE OFF HEADING.

Points to Remember – Maintain the same direction as the runway after takeoff
– Fly straight without turning
– Continue on the heading used during liftoff

Q29. In the event of a GNSS failure, what specific information does the pilot provide to Air Traffic Control?

The alert, their intentions, their position, altitude, and the procedure they are on.

A request for a holding pattern to troubleshoot the issue.

Only the nature of the alert and a request for vectors.

Points to Remember – Notify ATC of the specific failure alert received
– State the intended plan of action
– Report the current position and altitude
– Identify the procedure being followed at the time of failure

Q30. What is the primary role of the Air Traffic Controller regarding known GNSS interference, as per the protocol?

To vector all aircraft away from the area of interference automatically.

To inform approaching pilots of the interference with as much detail as possible.

To cancel all GNSS approaches until further notice.

Points to Remember – Inform pilots about the interference with as much detail as possible
– Provide information to allow pilots to make informed decisions
– Do not automatically cancel approaches or vector aircraft away

Q31. In a PAR approach, what is the initial call given to an aircraft after the approach is approved?

Report heading and altitude

Report established on localizer

Report established on Glide Path

Points to Remember – The first request from ATC after a PAR approach is approved is to report heading and altitude
– This information allows the controller to identify the aircraft’s exact position and orientation
– Accurate reporting is essential before the controller begins providing guidance for the approach

Q32. How should ATC clear a pilot to descend on a STAR and cancel all published level and speed restrictions?

DESCEND UNRESTRICTED TO level or DESCEND TO level, CANCEL LEVEL AND SPEED RESTRICTIONS.

CLEARED DIRECT TO waypoint, NEGATIVE LEVEL AND SPEED RESTRICTIONS.

DESCEND VIA STAR TO level UNRESTRICTED.

Points to Remember – ATC cancels STAR altitude and speed restrictions by using the phrase DESCEND UNRESTRICTED TO (level)
– Alternatively, they may use DESCEND TO (level), CANCEL LEVEL AND SPEED RESTRICTIONS
– These instructions allow pilots to descend smoothly without adhering to individual step-down constraints or speed limits published on the arrival procedure

Q33. To avoid confusion with ILS, an MLS approach is referred to as what in RTF communication?

Microwave Precision Approach.

Microwave Approach.

MLA microwave landing approach.

Points to Remember – MLS is referred to as Microwave Approach in radio communications
– This specific terminology is used to prevent pilots from confusing MLS with ILS
– The distinct naming ensures clarity and avoids communication errors during approach

Q34. Which Q-code stands for the True heading to be steered by the aircraft to reach the station?

QUJ.

QDL.

QTE.

Points to Remember – QUJ represents the true heading to be steered to reach the station
– It is the true bearing equivalent of QDM, which uses magnetic heading
– This code is specifically used for navigating toward a facility using true north as the reference

Q35. During a Precision Radar Approach PAR, who is primarily responsible for tracking the aircraft’s deviation?

The Co-pilot

The Pilot

The Controller

Points to Remember – The controller is primarily responsible for tracking the aircraft’s deviations from the correct path
– Radar is used by the controller to monitor if the pilot is above, below, left, or right of the glide path
– The pilot’s role is to follow the specific verbal instructions provided by the controller

Q36. Which Q-code stands for the Magnetic bearing of the aircraft from the station?

QDR.

QTE.

QDM.

Points to Remember – QDR represents the magnetic bearing from the station to the aircraft
– QDM represents the magnetic heading to the station
– Think of QDR as a radial shooting out from the station toward the aircraft position

Q37. What is the phraseology to request if a pilot is able to accept a visual approach?

CONFIRM VISUAL APPROACH ACCEPTABLE FOR RUNWAY number?

CLEARED VISUAL APPROACH RUNWAY number AT YOUR DISCRETION.

ADVISE ABLE TO ACCEPT VISUAL APPROACH RUNWAY number.

Points to Remember – Standard phraseology is ADVISE ABLE TO ACCEPT VISUAL APPROACH RUNWAY [number]
– ATC uses this phrase to check if the pilot can see the runway
– The query confirms if the pilot is comfortable landing visually

Q38. What phraseology is used to instruct a pilot to maintain altitude until a certain point of the approach?

CLEARED TO level AFTER designate the point.

DESCEND ON YOUR OWN DISCRETION.

MAINTAIN altitude UNTIL GLIDE PATH INTERCEPTION.

Points to Remember – Use the phrase MAINTAIN altitude UNTIL GLIDE PATH INTERCEPTION
– Stay at the current altitude until the glide path is captured
– Follow the descending beam down to the runway after interception

Q39. When is the phrase DELAY NOT DETERMINED used?

When the delay is not determined followed by reasons.

When the reason for the delay is unknown.

When the traffic conditions are rapidly changing.

Points to Remember – Used when ATC knows a delay will occur but the exact duration is unknown
– Followed by the specific reason for the delay
– Communicates that there is a wait without a specified time frame

Q40. What is the primary purpose of vectoring for approach?

To position the aircraft onto a pilot-interpreted approach aid.

To position the aircraft to a holding fix in IMC.

To provide navigation help to pilot on request.

Points to Remember – ATC provides specific headings to guide the aircraft onto the final approach path
– Vectors are used to help the pilot intercept approach aids like ILS or VOR
– The process serves as guidance to the starting line of the final approach to the runway

Q41. What phraseology is used to clear an aircraft to proceed direct to a waypoint while keeping the expectation to rejoin the SID?

CLEARED DIRECT waypoint, EXPECT TO REJOIN SID.

LEAVE SID designator to waypoint, REJOIN SID CLEAR OF TRAFFIC.

PROCEED DIRECT waypoint, TURN RIGHT TO REJOIN SID.

Points to Remember – Use the phrase CLEARED DIRECT [waypoint], EXPECT TO REJOIN SID
– This instruction directs the pilot to fly straight to a specific point
– It informs the pilot to prepare to return to the standard departure route later
– This acts as a shortcut before merging back onto the main departure path

Q42. What is the phraseology when a delay is not expected for an arrival?

NEGATIVE DELAY, HOLDING INSTRUCTIONS CANCELED.

NO DELAY EXPECTED.

DELAY NOT DETERMINED. CONTINUE, WILL ADVISE.

Points to Remember – Use the phrase NO DELAY EXPECTED
– Indicates that no holding is required before landing
– Signal from ATC that an immediate approach is available

Q43. Which Q-code stands for the Magnetic heading to be steered by the aircraft to reach the station?

QUJ.

QDR.

QDM.

Points to Remember – QDM represents the magnetic heading to be steered to reach a station
– It is commonly used for homing an aircraft toward a specific station
– You can remember it as Q Direction Magnetic (TO the station)

Q44. If an SRA procedure terminates at 2 miles from touchdown, at what intervals are the distance and advisory altitude checks normally passed?

One mile intervals.

Each half mile.

Every 5 seconds.

Points to Remember – Distance and advisory altitude checks are normally passed at each half mile
– Frequent checks help pilots maintain precise awareness of position and altitude
– Half-mile intervals ensure safer landings compared to one-mile intervals

Q45. During a VDF procedure, requests for QDMs are normally initiated by the pilot at intervals of about 1 minute during the initial stages of homing, and what happens to the frequency as the VDF overhead is approached?

Decreasing in frequency.

Increasing in frequency.

Remains the same.

Points to Remember – Request frequency for QDMs increases as the station is approached
– Smaller heading errors become more critical when closer to the destination
– Frequent updates are necessary to maintain accuracy during the final stages of homing
– Initial requests are typically made at one-minute intervals when far from the station

Q46. What must a pilot do immediately if the controller transmits, YOU HAVE CROSSED THE LOCALIZER?

TURN LEFT or RIGHT IMMEDIATELY AND RETURN TO THE LOCALIZER.

Turn left or right to intercept the glide path.

Ask controller for help to land.

Points to Remember – Turn immediately to get back on the localizer
– The localizer is the beam that guides the aircraft to the runway centerline
– Crossing the localizer means the aircraft is off course and needs immediate correction

Q47. During a Surveillance Radar Approach SRA, what does the controller provide to the pilot?

Distance from touchdown and advisory heights

Glide path and distance from runway threshold

Actual altitude and localizer guidance

Points to Remember – Distance from touchdown is provided by the controller
– Advisory heights are suggested at specific distances
– Precise glide path guidance is not provided
– Suggested altitudes help ensure a safe descent

Results

Q1. At busier airports, how may departures and arrivals be handled?

Q2. What is the phraseology used by a pilot to ask for holding instructions?

Q3. Which of the following is an Approach Control service?

Q4. During an SRA that terminates at less than 2 miles from touchdown, and aircraft replies are not expected, how long is the maximum interval the controller’s transmissions should be interrupted once the aircraft is within 4 miles from touchdown?

Q5. Which letter prefix is used to designate a Helicopter route?

Q6. What phraseology is used to issue a change to a previously given Expected Approach Time?

Q7. What phraseology is used to assign an arrival clearance limit?

Q8. In the SRA 3 deg Glide Path at 4 miles from touchdown, what is the advisory height?

Q9. What element substitutes for Time of leg in the holding information order when issuing a VOR/DME holding clearance?

Q10. For an aircraft to be eligible to fly an RNAV GNSS Standard Instrument Departure SID, what must its navigation system meet?

Q11. What is the phraseology for a visual hold?

Q12. The basic designator for ATS routes consists of one letter followed by a number from:

Q13. The services handled by Approach Control include:

Q14. What is the purpose of the Initial climb level provided on initial contact for IFR departures?

Q15. Which set of letters designates RNAV routes that are part of the regional network?

Q16. Which letter prefix is used to designate a Route in Upper airspace?

Q17. In a successive visual approach, what instruction is given if the pilot reports the preceding aircraft in sight?

Q18. If an SRA terminates at less than 2 miles from touchdown, at what intervals are the distance and advisory altitude checks given?

Q19. A Standard Terminal Arrival Route STAR is described as comprising two main elements. What are they?

Q20. What is the immediate and mandatory action for a pilot upon receiving a RAIM alert during an approach?

Q21. When the SRA is terminated because the pilot reports runway in sight, what is the condition for termination?

Q22. What phraseology is used to clear an approach that is followed by a circling maneuver?

Q23. What information must IFR departure pilots include on initial contact with the first en-route ATS unit?

Q24. Which Q-code stands for the True bearing of the aircraft from the station?

Q25. What is the key phrase regarding safety checks at the start of an SRA service?

Q26. Clearance to execute a visual approach shall only be issued provided the aircraft can maintain visual reference to terrain and has:

Q27. In a detailed holding clearance, what information specifies the lateral limits of the holding pattern?

Q28. Which instruction directs an aircraft to maintain the runway’s heading after departure?

Q29. In the event of a GNSS failure, what specific information does the pilot provide to Air Traffic Control?

Q30. What is the primary role of the Air Traffic Controller regarding known GNSS interference, as per the protocol?

Q31. In a PAR approach, what is the initial call given to an aircraft after the approach is approved?

Q32. How should ATC clear a pilot to descend on a STAR and cancel all published level and speed restrictions?

Q33. To avoid confusion with ILS, an MLS approach is referred to as what in RTF communication?

Q34. Which Q-code stands for the True heading to be steered by the aircraft to reach the station?

Q35. During a Precision Radar Approach PAR, who is primarily responsible for tracking the aircraft’s deviation?

Q36. Which Q-code stands for the Magnetic bearing of the aircraft from the station?

Q37. What is the phraseology to request if a pilot is able to accept a visual approach?

Q38. What phraseology is used to instruct a pilot to maintain altitude until a certain point of the approach?

Q39. When is the phrase DELAY NOT DETERMINED used?

Q40. What is the primary purpose of vectoring for approach?

Q41. What phraseology is used to clear an aircraft to proceed direct to a waypoint while keeping the expectation to rejoin the SID?

Q42. What is the phraseology when a delay is not expected for an arrival?

Q43. Which Q-code stands for the Magnetic heading to be steered by the aircraft to reach the station?

Q44. If an SRA procedure terminates at 2 miles from touchdown, at what intervals are the distance and advisory altitude checks normally passed?

Q45. During a VDF procedure, requests for QDMs are normally initiated by the pilot at intervals of about 1 minute during the initial stages of homing, and what happens to the frequency as the VDF overhead is approached?

Q46. What must a pilot do immediately if the controller transmits, YOU HAVE CROSSED THE LOCALIZER?

Q47. During a Surveillance Radar Approach SRA, what does the controller provide to the pilot?

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